Sunday, June 24, 2012

SAIL Management trainee admit card 2012 download

SAIL MT Admit card 2012 :- Steel Authority of India Limited  (SAIL) invites the application for 1090 Management Trainee recruitment 2012.SAIL conduct written against this recruitment  on 17 /06/2012. The candidates who filled application against this vacancy can download their management trainee admit card 2012 from 04/06/2012  .SAIL MT admit card will be available on official website of SAIL

Friday, June 22, 2012

BEL Previous year paper/ Sample paper


The pattern of the technical paper of PE is fully objective type paper. paper consist of almost equal no of question from all of the technical subjects in which most of the question is one line answer. there is no need of the calculator to solve the problem.
The paper also have the negative marking. please read the instruction before attempting the paper because no exact data given in the notification for the negative marking.The paper is given below...

if you know the answer of question write in the comment box. if any question found incorrect please also notify me......

Railtel Paper Pattern And syllabus


RAILTEL CORPORATION OF INDIA LIMITED, a premier Public Sector Undertaking under Ministry of Railways has been incorporated in September 2000. RailTel is a telecom infrastructure provider and has been set up primarily to modernize and augment the existing infrastructure for providing communication facilities for Railways and other commercial users. RailTel offers career opportunities to bright, young and dynamic professionals and invites applications from Indian citizens for recruitment in Technical, Marketing and Personnel & Administration departments .
The details of the vacancy position are as given below in this vacancy notice.

Syllabus of RAILTEL DM(TECH)

Selection Procedure

Selection will be done in the two phase written test followed by the interview process. shortlisted candidate in the written test will be called for the interview process.

Written test: 
written test will be of the two hours. the detail is given in the table.

No. of question
Mode of paper
Description
Period of the examination
Medium of examination


100
Objective type
Section A: 60 ques. (professional subjects)


2 hours(120 Min.)


English & Hindi.
Objective type
Section B: 40 ques.
(General awareness, quantitative aptitude, logical reasoning and General English.)

Syllabus of technical paper : 
  The technical paper consist of the basic question related to your engineering branch. the level of the question will be the same as the normal PSU's. The paper cover all subjects with more question  s coverd by the communication related subjects for the ELECTRONICS branch.
 Optical fiber communication question having the highest chance to come for the ELECTRONICS branch.

The model paper will be available soon.........
Syllabus of RAILTEL DM(TECH)

BEL(PE) 2012 Paper 

Thursday, June 21, 2012

COAL INDIA (CIL) MT(management trainee) syllabus

 The written test shall be of 3 hours (180 min) duration categorized into two sections (Papers). and both of which will be in the form of objective type questions. Both of the paper having the equal marks distribution.

coal india paper pattern


Description
Max marks
Min Qual. Marks
UR
OBC
SC/ST
PH
Paper-1
General awareness and aptitude
100
45
40
35
35
Paper-2
Technical aptitude
100
45
40
35
35
Total (1+2)
3 hours(180 Min)
200
110
100
90
90

Interview shortlisting:


on the basis of the written test total 1:3 ratio candidate will be called for the interview process.


Admit card:
 admit card for the written test will be available shortly on the website of the coal india ltd.



Syllabus of BEL- PE(Probationary engineer) -2012

The written test will consist of Objective type questions from basic Engineering subjects/HR subjects, in the respective disciplines / specialisations and General Aptitude. 

part-1 Non technical    

General aptitude + General english

Part-2: Technical

technical section is related to the your discipline applied. A) ELECTRONICS, B) MECHANICAL, C) COMPUTER SCIENCE
A) Electronics-
Networks: Network graphs:matrices associated with graphs;incidence,fundamental cut set and fundamental circuit matrices. solution methods: nodal and mesh analysis. Network theorems: superposition, Thevenin and Norton’s maximum power transfer, Wye-Delta transformation. Steady state sinusoidal analysis using phasors. Linear constant coefficient differential equations; time domain analysis of simple RLC circuits, Solution of network equations using Laplace transform: frequency domain analysis of RLC circuits. 2-port network parameters: driving point and transfer functions. State equations for networks.

Wednesday, June 20, 2012

Bengal Engineering and Science University,inviting application for the post of JRF



University Project Code: DRC/CSIR/ETC/PB/040/10-11,W. Code DRC-006/12-13
Eligibility: ME/M.Tech
Location: West Bengal-other
Job Category: Govt Sector, Research
Last Date: 8 July 12
Job Type: Full Time
Hiring Process: Face to Face Interview.

JOB DETAILS

Project on: “Development of a Chemical Sensor to monitor the spoilage of Potato in the Cold Storage”
Minimum Qualification: M. E./M.Tech Degree (Final semester M.E/M.Tech students, who have already
 submitted their thesis, are also eligible) with specialization in Electronic Devices/VLSI/Nanoscience
 and Technology or equivalent. 
Desirable: 1) NET/GATE Qualified. 2) Experience in the field of microelectronics/ device fabrications/sensors
No of Fellowship: One
Tenure of appointment: Initially for 1 year but may be extended.
Pay Scale:  Rs. 12000

Thursday, June 14, 2012

IAS Prelims 2012 General Studies Paper I (CSAT) : Solved Question Paper


1. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA', a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
 
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(b) 2 and 4 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER: (A)
2. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (C)
3. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
(c) Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
ANSWER: (C)
4. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (B)
5. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
ANSWER: (B)
6. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (B)
7. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: (A)

Wednesday, June 13, 2012

ECE Interview questions with answer

Electronics and Communication Engineering interview preparation

    1. Which range of signals is used for terrestrial transmission?
    2. Why is there need for modulation?Which type of modulation is used in TV transmission?
    3. How can you convert an SR Flip-flop to a JK Flip-flop?
    4. How can you convert an JK Flip-flop to a D Flip-flop?
    5. What is Race-around problem? How can you rectify it?
    6. Which semiconductor device is used as a voltage regulator and why?
    7. Explain an ideal voltage source?
    8. Explain zener breakdown and avalanche breakdown?
    9. What are the different types of filters?
    10. What is the need of filtering ideal response of filters and actual response of filters?
    11. What is sampling theorem?
    12. What is impulse response?
    13. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of FIR filters compared to IIR counterparts.
    14. What is CMRR?
    15. Why we use vestigial side band (VSB-C3F) transmission for picture?
    16. When transmitting digital signals is it necessary to transmit some harmonics in addition to fundamental frequency?
    17. For asynchronous transmission, is it necessary to supply some synchronizing pulses additionally or to supply or to supply start and stop bit?
    18. BPFSK is more efficient than BFSK in presence of noise. Why?
    19. What is meant by pre-emphasis and de-emphasis?
    20. Explain 3 dB cutoff frequency? Why is it 3 dB, not 1 dB?
    21. Explain ASCII, EBCDIC?
    22.  What is the basic difference between Latches and Flip flops?
    23. What is a multiplexer?
    24. Explain half-duplex and full-duplex communication?
                    click here for the answers

Tuesday, June 12, 2012

UPPSC General Studies Solved Paper

UPPSC GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER 2011

1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak
Ans : (C)
2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist
Ans : (B)
3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena
Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (A)
5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena
Ans : (B)
9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh
Ans : (C)
10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal
Ans : (B)
12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I
Ans : (B)
14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans : (A)
15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh
Ans : (B)
17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans : (D)
18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery
Ans : (D)
19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans : (A)
21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—
(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (A)
22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (B)
23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference
Ans : (C)
24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (A)
25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale
Ans : (A)
26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Ans : (C)
27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange
Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
Ans : (C)
29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi
Ans : (A)
31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal
Ans : (D)
32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (A)
34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 “a car which has brake but no engine” ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (A)
35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal
Ans : (B)
36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague
Ans : (C)
38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947
Ans : (C)
39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas
Ans : (B)
41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho
Ans : (C)
43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi
Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer
Ans : (D)
45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander
Ans : (C)
46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)
48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (A)
49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand
Ans : (B)
50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya
Ans : (B)
53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India
Ans : (A)
54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087
Ans : (A)
55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada
Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI
Ans : (D)
58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006
Ans : (C)
61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)
62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974
Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992
64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka
Ans : (B)
65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933
Ans : (D)
66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931
Ans : (B)
70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore
Ans : (D)
72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)
73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)
74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)
75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman
Ans : (D)
76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China
Ans : (A)
77. The Equator passes through—
(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (B)
78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas
Ans : (A)
79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : Incorrect Options
80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat
Ans : (D)
81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter
Ans : (C)
82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia
Ans : (C)
83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla
Ans : (B)
84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans : (B)
85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B)
86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)
87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari
Ans : (C)
88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits
Ans : (A)
90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests
Ans : (A)
91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum
Ans : (D)
92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau
Ans : (A)
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995
Ans : (C)
94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad
Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota
Ans : (A)
96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA
Ans : (C)
97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009
Ans : (C)
98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai
Ans : (C)
99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)
100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)
101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal
Ans : (B)
102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar
Ans : (D)
103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader
Ans : (B)
104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri
Ans : (B)
105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan
Ans : (B)
106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg
Ans : (D)
107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni
Ans : (D)
109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)
111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (A)
112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball
Ans : (D)
113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting
Ans : (D)
114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath
Ans : (C)
115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE
Ans : (B)
116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (B)
117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping
Ans : (D)
118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut
Ans : (A)
119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar
Ans : (A)
120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt
Ans : (C)
121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar
Ans : (B)
122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut
Ans : (B)
123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum
Ans : (A)
125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)
126. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra
Ans : (B)
129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank
Ans : (C)
130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air
Ans : (A)
131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement
Ans : (B)
132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva
Ans : (B)
133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade
Ans : (A)
134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy
Ans : (B)
135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)
136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
Ans : (A)
137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York
Ans : (B)
138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km
Ans : (A)
140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir
Ans : (B)
141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans : (C)
142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America
Ans : (A)
143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22
Ans : (D)
144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga
Ans : (D)
145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur
Ans : (A)
146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes
Ans : (A)
147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia
Ans : (B)
148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad
Ans : (A)
149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur
Ans : (C)
150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (C)

Monday, June 11, 2012

SAIL Previous year paper (Management Trainee)

SAIL MT recruitment paper  

 The given papers is the placement paper of the SAIL(steel authority of india ltd.) for the recruitment of the management trainee technical.
paper consist of the two sections-

Section 1- Non technical(G.S + Aptitude +Reasoning + English  )
Section 2- Technical (related to your engineering branch )